How would a cognitive psychologist explain it?

topic:
Obstacles to Self-Actualization: If the tendency toward self-actualization is innate, why are more adults not self-actualized? Marlow estimated that only 1% of adults are self-actualized. If he’s right, why is this the case? Based on Marlow’s theory, how would you explain it? How would Freud explain it? How would a cognitive psychologist explain it?

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